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Jul 3, 2019 at 8:35 comment added Anixx @user76284 yes, my typo.
Jul 3, 2019 at 0:43 comment added user76284 @Anixx Since the zeta function starts from $k=1$, shouldn't that be $\sum_{k=1}^\infty 1 = \zeta(0) = -1/2$ and $\sum_{k=0}^\infty 1 = 1 + \zeta(0) = 1 - 1/2 = 1/2$?
Sep 29, 2017 at 22:42 comment added reuns @DavidSpeyer $S = 1+S$ is what you get only if the summation is shift invariant, which is not the case for the zeta summation (that's why it obtains a finite value $-1/2$)
Sep 4, 2017 at 20:59 comment added Anixx $\sum_{k=0}^\infty 1 = -1/2$, $\sum_{k=1}^\infty 1 = 1/2$...
Aug 16, 2011 at 20:31 comment added Andrew By the way the proposition that $1+1+1+... = -1/2$ was first made by Euler.
Oct 29, 2009 at 12:27 comment added David E Speyer Hmmm. Perhaps I was too strong there. I tend to assume that a summation method should obey a_1+a_2+...=0+a_1+a_2+..., which zeta regularization does not. But I can't make a strong argument for that assumption.
Oct 29, 2009 at 12:23 comment added Armin Straub You don't think that 1+1+1+... = -1/2 has some decency? (Of course, that's \zeta(0).)
Oct 29, 2009 at 10:40 history answered David E Speyer CC BY-SA 2.5