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Feb 24, 2019 at 13:02 comment added Anthonny @PerAlexandersson yes, but what would be the difference with proving that "there is no natural number between 0 and 1"? This is obvious, but we use Peano Postulates in order to prove it. And I can see many other examples in the first chapters of any Real Analysis book.
Feb 24, 2019 at 6:49 comment added Per Alexandersson Isn't this obvious?
Feb 24, 2019 at 6:31 history edited Anthonny CC BY-SA 4.0
simplification
Feb 24, 2019 at 4:15 review Close votes
Feb 25, 2019 at 20:57
Feb 24, 2019 at 2:32 history asked Anthonny CC BY-SA 4.0