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Feb 21, 2019 at 15:17 vote accept Alfred
Feb 21, 2019 at 13:00 comment added Iosif Pinelis I don't see an intuition (or an argument) that the probability should decrease (or increase) with the dimension $n$. The best and shortest explanation that I have at the moment of why the probability does not depend on $n$ is in the first half of this answer: that the joint distribution of the signs of $x\cdot v$ and $y\cdot v$ does not depend on $n$ (whereas the joint distribution of $x\cdot v$ and $y\cdot v$ themselves likely does depend on $n$). So, the problem is essentially two dimensional, and the answer depends only on the distance between the points $x,y$ on the unit sphere.
Feb 21, 2019 at 9:03 comment added Alfred Thank you very much! Just one more question: why does it not depend on the dimension $n$? Intuitively, the bigger the dimension is, the smaller the probability should be, or am I wrong?
Feb 21, 2019 at 4:22 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 21, 2019 at 4:14 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 21, 2019 at 4:05 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 21, 2019 at 3:58 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 21, 2019 at 3:46 history answered Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0