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Jan 28, 2023 at 15:06 comment added Chill2Macht Technically doesn't one of the seven axioms of $\mathsf{Q}$, $y = 0 \lor \exists x (Sx = y)$, not belong to the finite and non-inductive fragment of $\mathsf{PA}$? Not that it makes any difference for the question given that it appears to be already be a consequence of $\mathsf{I\Sigma_1}$. Just commenting on this for other readers like me who became confused when they conflated the non-inductive fragment of $\mathsf{PA}$ with $\mathsf{Q}$ -- they aren't quite the same.
Feb 12, 2019 at 13:46 vote accept Not_Here
Feb 12, 2019 at 13:46 history edited Not_Here CC BY-SA 4.0
Fixed TeX
Feb 12, 2019 at 7:26 answer added Fedor Pakhomov timeline score: 10
Feb 12, 2019 at 0:19 history edited Not_Here CC BY-SA 4.0
Fixed title
Feb 11, 2019 at 17:34 history edited Not_Here CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 11, 2019 at 17:26 history asked Not_Here CC BY-SA 4.0