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Mar 5, 2019 at 2:28 answer added T. Amdeberhan timeline score: 1
Feb 11, 2019 at 3:45 vote accept Richard Stanley
Feb 10, 2019 at 6:05 answer added Brendan McKay timeline score: 11
Feb 9, 2019 at 19:26 comment added Alexander Chervov It would be nice to include hyperlink to mentioned MO 35996 question mathoverflow.net/questions/35996/ehrhart-polynomial
Feb 9, 2019 at 0:37 comment added David Handelman Now I see: $i_d (n)$ is supposed to be a polynomial itself in $x$. So ignore my remarks ...
Feb 8, 2019 at 22:19 comment added David Handelman I don't understand the difficulty: 1/(1-x) has Maclaurin series with positive coefficients, so that so do all its powers (which are known anyway), and multiplying by $(1+x)^d$ preserves this. Since the radius of convergence of the thing on the right is $1$, uniqueness yields the result. Moreover, it also follows that the coefficients form a log concave sequence ... (since those of $1/(1-x)$ and of $1+x$ do).
Feb 8, 2019 at 20:32 comment added Richard Stanley @SamHopkins: It is related but not so useful in answering my question, since positivity is proved by the same Theorem 3.2.
Feb 8, 2019 at 20:25 comment added Sam Hopkins Possibly related?: mathoverflow.net/questions/308178/…
Feb 8, 2019 at 20:13 history asked Richard Stanley CC BY-SA 4.0