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Oct 7 at 23:04 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Oct 4 at 1:25 comment added JasTonAChair I'm a bit late to the party, but this resource is very helpful - stats.libretexts.org/Bookshelves/Probability_Theory/…. The key insight is that the probability of extinction $q$ for each generation is greater than the last, but less than 1, so $q_n \to q $ as $n \to \infty $.
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Jul 6, 2019 at 18:40 review Close votes
Jul 14, 2019 at 3:05
Jul 6, 2019 at 18:31 comment added Kostya_I If $p$ is the extinction probability and the first individual has $n$ children, then the conditional extinction probability is $p^n$. Therefore, $p=\mathbb{E}[p^n]$. With a proof that simple, what more intuition are you asking for?
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Feb 6, 2019 at 13:18 answer added Dieter Kadelka timeline score: 0
Feb 6, 2019 at 11:59 comment added Dieter Kadelka Please omit the last two sentences in my first comment. You asked for the implications of $f(s) = s$ for some (not all) $0 < s < 1$.
Feb 6, 2019 at 11:29 comment added Dieter Kadelka As far as I know generating functions are defined as $f(s) = \mathbb{E}s^X$ for random variables $X$ (often with values in $\mathbb{N}_0$). What is the random variable $X$ in your case? Then $f(s) = s$ implies that $\mathbb{P}(X = 1) = 1$. Is this what you want?
S Feb 5, 2019 at 22:31 history suggested Amir Sagiv CC BY-SA 4.0
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S Feb 5, 2019 at 22:31
Feb 5, 2019 at 21:59 history edited libby CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 5, 2019 at 21:55 review First posts
Feb 5, 2019 at 22:06
Feb 5, 2019 at 21:54 history asked libby CC BY-SA 4.0