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Feb 6, 2019 at 14:01 comment added Carlo Beenakker now asked separately at mathoverflow.net/q/322555/11260
Feb 6, 2019 at 0:56 comment added Iosif Pinelis I don't think they are. This question, as any other further questions you may have should be asked separately, I think.
Feb 5, 2019 at 20:59 comment added Felipe Augusto de Figueiredo Based on this result and on the knowledge that for $M > 5$ the real and imaginary parts of $z_i \forall i$ are normally distributed with mean equal to 0, can we say that $z_1$ and $z_2$ are independent?
Feb 3, 2019 at 17:23 comment added Felipe Augusto de Figueiredo Thanks, it is clear now.
Feb 3, 2019 at 16:29 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 3, 2019 at 15:34 comment added Iosif Pinelis @FelipeAugustodeFigueiredo : I have added the detail you requested.
Feb 3, 2019 at 15:32 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 3, 2019 at 11:17 comment added Felipe Augusto de Figueiredo I've accepted your answer as the correct one as I have simulated the correlation and it is zero as you pointed out, however, I fail to see how you conclude that the joint distribution of the pair (โˆ’๐‘ง1,๐‘งโˆ—2) is the same as that of (๐‘ง1,๐‘งโˆ—2) once the joint pdf is unknown. Is it possible to conclude that without knowing the joint pdf of (๐‘ง1,๐‘งโˆ—2)? Thanks!
Feb 3, 2019 at 9:10 vote accept Felipe Augusto de Figueiredo
Feb 3, 2019 at 1:49 comment added Iosif Pinelis The only inequality in the above answer is an instance of the Cauchy--Schwarz inequality, which is now made explicit in the answer.
Feb 3, 2019 at 1:48 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 2, 2019 at 9:44 comment added Felipe Augusto de Figueiredo Dear, thanks. I don't understand the inequality, is this some known one? Could you please, give further details on that?
Feb 1, 2019 at 20:52 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Feb 1, 2019 at 20:28 history answered Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0