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Oct 3, 2019 at 12:16 comment added Michael Rozenberg Yes, of course!
Oct 3, 2019 at 11:29 comment added vidyarthi Shouldnt it be $\sum_{cyc}a^2(b+c+d+e)=\frac1{6}\sum_{sym}a^2b$
Oct 3, 2019 at 11:05 comment added Michael Rozenberg For example $\sum\limits_{sym}a^2b=\frac{1}{6}\sum\limits_{cyc}a^2(b+c+d+e)$ because in the expression $\sum\limits_{cyc}a^2(b+c+d+e)$ we have $20$ terms and $\frac{5!}{20}=6.$ This thinking is very useful for the work with symmetric polynomials!
Oct 3, 2019 at 7:56 comment added vidyarthi sorry, I didnt get you. You mean, you apply the same faormula again and again, is it?
Oct 3, 2019 at 3:09 comment added Michael Rozenberg @vidyarthi I do it every time again.
Oct 2, 2019 at 21:33 comment added vidyarthi thanks! So that seems something like the relation between cyclic and symmetric groups. By the way, could you refer a proper repository of such formulae and factorizations, that is a work dealing with symmetric and cyclic inequalities
Oct 2, 2019 at 21:00 comment added Michael Rozenberg @vidyarthi I used $\sum\limits_{sym}a^5=\frac{5!}{5}\sum\limits_{cyc}a^5=24\sum\limits_{cyc}a^5.$
Oct 2, 2019 at 20:20 comment added vidyarthi could you add some more explanations, like how the constant $\frac1{48}$ came in the first step?
Jan 30, 2019 at 8:21 history answered Michael Rozenberg CC BY-SA 4.0