Timeline for Why isn't integral defined as the area under the graph of function?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
2 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jan 30, 2019 at 8:50 | comment | added | user57888 | That's a fair point. Both as a student and as a teacher, I first had full presentation of Lebesgue measure, and only then of Lebesgue integral, so I missed that point. Do you know whether the route you sketched is actually followed somewhere or is it just a hypothetical scenario? I believe that probabilists might want it this way. | |
| Jan 30, 2019 at 5:21 | history | answered | Nate Eldredge | CC BY-SA 4.0 |