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Jan 24, 2019 at 16:41 vote accept CommunityBot
Jan 24, 2019 at 16:29 comment added Sasha Any sheaf on $\mathbb{P}^1$ with no cohomology is a sum of $\mathcal{O}(-1)$. Now your vector bundle (say $E$) comes in an exact sequence $0 \to E \to \mathcal{O}(-1) \oplus \mathcal{O} \to \mathcal{O}_p \to 0$ (the last term is the structure sheaf of the point $p$), so the only question is to understand the map $H^0(\mathcal{O}(-1) \oplus \mathcal{O}) \to H^0(\mathcal{O}_p)$. This turns out to be given by $b$.
Jan 24, 2019 at 16:15 comment added user68440 If I understand correctly you are saying that for $a,b$ general we get $\mathcal{O}(-1)\oplus\mathcal{O}(-1)$. Could you please give me an intuitive idea of why this is the case? Thank you.
Jan 24, 2019 at 16:12 comment added Sasha That now depends on the scalars $a$ and $b$. Typically you will get $\mathcal{O}(-1) \oplus \mathcal{O}(-1)$, but sometimes (in fact, when $b = 0$), you will get $\mathcal{O}(-2) \oplus \mathcal{O}$.
Jan 24, 2019 at 16:03 comment added user68440 Now, let's say we do the same thing starting with $\mathcal{O}(-1)\oplus\mathcal{O}$ instead of $\mathcal{O}\oplus\mathcal{O}$. Do we get $\mathcal{O}(-1)\oplus\mathcal{O}(-1)$ or $\mathcal{O}(-2)\oplus\mathcal{O}$?
Jan 24, 2019 at 15:51 history answered Sasha CC BY-SA 4.0