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Mikhail Bondarko
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If $f:X\to S$ is a universal homomorphismhomeomorphism, is $f':X\times_S X\to X$ a nil-immersion?

If $f:X\to S$ is a universal homomorphismhomeomorphism, is $f':X\times_S X\to X$ always a nil-immersion? This seems to be easy, yet possibly I miss something. Should I give references to this fact in a paper?

If $f:X\to S$ is a universal homomorphism, is $f':X\times_S X\to X$ a nil-immersion?

If $f:X\to S$ is a universal homomorphism, is $f':X\times_S X\to X$ always a nil-immersion? This seems to be easy, yet possibly I miss something. Should I give references to this fact in a paper?

If $f:X\to S$ is a universal homeomorphism, is $f':X\times_S X\to X$ a nil-immersion?

If $f:X\to S$ is a universal homeomorphism, is $f':X\times_S X\to X$ always a nil-immersion? This seems to be easy, yet possibly I miss something. Should I give references to this fact in a paper?

Source Link
Mikhail Bondarko
  • 16.9k
  • 4
  • 34
  • 98

If $f:X\to S$ is a universal homomorphism, is $f':X\times_S X\to X$ a nil-immersion?

If $f:X\to S$ is a universal homomorphism, is $f':X\times_S X\to X$ always a nil-immersion? This seems to be easy, yet possibly I miss something. Should I give references to this fact in a paper?