At least the defining equations of the inverse $f^{-1}$ of $f$ with $y=f^{-1}(z)$ $\ \ $ $f^{-1}(f(y))=z$ and $f(f^{-1}(y))=z$ cannot be solved for $y$ by only transforming the equations only by inverting the operations (functions) directly readable from thisthese equations. That's because the inverse relation of a multiary univalued algebraic function is multivalued and therefore not a function and in particular not an allowed function. But it has to be proved if there are other functions $f^{-1}$ contained in the field generated by the functions that build the function expression of $f$.