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Jan 14, 2019 at 13:39 comment added Alexandre Eremenko @dineshdileep: take $b_j=0$ and $K=I$. Then there is no maximum: it is at infinity.
Jan 14, 2019 at 1:33 comment added dineshdileep Thanks Professor. In addition, what if $f(x) = \sum_{i}b_i\phi_i (x) - \sum_{i,j}K_{ij}\phi_i (x) \phi_j (x)$ where K is a positive definite matrix. Does the answers change then? Is there any possible hope then.
Jan 11, 2019 at 13:35 history answered Alexandre Eremenko CC BY-SA 4.0