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Jan 15, 2019 at 21:44 answer added Dirk Werner timeline score: 3
Jan 14, 2019 at 22:33 comment added Dirk Werner @Richard: Do you require Piotr's condition only for $x$ (that can be done) or also for $y$ (I don't see that...)?
Jan 12, 2019 at 5:00 comment added Richard @Piotr Yes, that is enough as well. Thanks.
Jan 11, 2019 at 20:02 comment added Piotr Hajlasz @Richard I think uniform bout of $k_n$ by a constant independent of $n$ is not possible. Also the second estimate seems not possible. However, $\sup_x\sup_n\sum_i|f_i^{(1,n)}(x)|<\infty$ is more likely to be true. Would it be enough? That is my rough guess.
Jan 11, 2019 at 19:19 comment added Richard @Piotr ideally I would want $k_n$ to be uniformly bounded to get my desired rate of convergence in my proof. Alternatively, I can require $ \sup_{n \in \mathbb{N}} \sum_{i=1}^{k_n} \sup_{x \in X} \Big| f^{(1,n)}_i(x) \Big| < +\infty$
Jan 11, 2019 at 17:19 comment added Piotr Hajlasz @Richard Do you want $k_n\leq n$ or some other bound will suffice?
Jan 11, 2019 at 7:41 comment added Richard @DirkWerner I just realised that, in my proof, I also need the sequence $k_n$ to be bounded in $n$. Do you think that partition of unity still works? Thanks.
Jan 11, 2019 at 7:39 history edited Richard CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 11, 2019 at 0:11 comment added Richard @Dirk Sorry can you give more details? One possible choice of partition of unity of $X \times Y$ consists of products of univariate functions of $X$ and $Y$. But after multiplying each function by $f$ ( not necessarily a product of univariate functions), the product itself is still not necessarily a product of univariate functions...
Jan 10, 2019 at 21:04 comment added Dirk Werner Sorry - partitions of unity...
Jan 10, 2019 at 19:41 comment added Dirk Werner Doesn't one use partions of unity multiplied by values of $f$ to get those univariate functions, and doesn't that show that the answer is yes?
Jan 10, 2019 at 18:28 history edited Richard CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 10, 2019 at 17:57 history asked Richard CC BY-SA 4.0