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Jan 9, 2019 at 17:03 history edited Yemon Choi
Added the CA tag in case this lemma or its proof have connections with various standard tools in classical analysis
Jan 9, 2019 at 15:56 answer added David E Speyer timeline score: 21
Jan 9, 2019 at 15:55 comment added Will Sawin If $y$ is a minimizer of $\sum_{i=1}^N f_i$ and we set $y_i= y$ for all $i$ then $y_i$ depends even less on $f_i$ and the lemma is trivial to prove, so I don't see where the intuition is coming from.
Jan 9, 2019 at 14:36 history asked Daron CC BY-SA 4.0