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Jan 9, 2019 at 15:59 history edited Aditya CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 9, 2019 at 15:55 comment added Aditya @Seva I am sorry, I meant that the probability approaches $1$ as $p$ approaches infinity, but forgot to type. I have edited accordingly. Thanks for pointing this out.
Jan 9, 2019 at 15:53 history edited Aditya CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 9, 2019 at 15:45 comment added Seva It seems that you may not quite grasp the notion of a random dilate. It is not some particular dilate which can intersect or not intersect some interval. One can only speak about the probability that a random dilate intersects every interval of given width etc.
Jan 9, 2019 at 11:35 review First posts
Jan 9, 2019 at 11:48
Jan 9, 2019 at 11:31 history asked Aditya CC BY-SA 4.0