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Jan 11, 2019 at 22:18 answer added John Rognes timeline score: 7
Jan 11, 2019 at 19:50 comment added Dylan Wilson What is your definition of $H\mathbb{Z}$ and the unit map? (It seems hard to have a definition of those two things without also having a proof that the unit map is an isomorphism on $\pi_0$...)
Jan 11, 2019 at 19:39 history edited Arun Debray
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Jan 11, 2019 at 16:56 comment added Denis Nardin @user09127 What are you starting from? One quick way to see that the map $\mathbb{S}→H\mathbb{Z}$ is an iso on π_0 is that it is a map of rings and both rings are $\mathbb{Z}$. Or maybe what you're missing is that $π_*(H\mathbb{Z}∧X)\cong H_*X$?
Jan 11, 2019 at 16:30 comment added user09127 @JohnRognes That's what I don't quite get. I assume that the way to prove this is to show that the unit map $S\rightarrow H\mathbb{Z}$ induces an isomorphism on $\pi_0$ (which has to be true), but how would your prove that? I guess a description of the action of the product of $H\mathbb{Z}$ on homotopy groups would do the trick. But, once again, that's not a precise argument.
Jan 11, 2019 at 16:06 history edited user09127 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 6, 2019 at 10:48 comment added Denis Nardin Maybe the missing observation here is that $H\mathbb{Z}\wedge SG\cong HG$ for all abelian groups $G$?
Jan 6, 2019 at 10:47 comment added John Rognes Because $\tilde \alpha$ is the wedge sum of maps $\Sigma^k H(\pi_k M) \to M$ inducing isomorphism on $\pi_k$.
Jan 6, 2019 at 8:49 history asked user09127 CC BY-SA 4.0