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Jan 7, 2019 at 11:12 history edited Martin Kell CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 7, 2019 at 11:11 comment added Martin Kell Seems i should avoid doing math at Sunday night. The projection is indeed not necessarily a balloon map. So the proof is still incomplete.
Jan 7, 2019 at 11:05 history edited Martin Kell CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 7, 2019 at 0:19 comment added Dmitri Panov The following statement is a bit suspicious: "Then it can be checked that $g_{L,K}=...$ ... is balloon map...". For example, if $K$ and $L$ are perpendicular, and $f$ is identical, as far as I can see $g_{L,K}$ is a projection from $L$ to a point on $K$. This is not balloon... Could you give a justification of this statement?
Jan 6, 2019 at 20:53 history edited Martin Kell CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jan 4, 2019 at 15:55 comment added Martin Kell @DmitriPanov, you are right, I missed that point. A quick check, only gave that the image of closed ball is the closed ball, i.e. $f(\bar U) = \overline{f(U)}$. Via a contradiction argument it is also possible to prove that a half space is mapped to a half space and that $f$ has to be surjective. This would rescue the convexity property. Currently I see a problem that the two touching points at the boundary of the big ball might not get mapped onto the boundary of the image of the large ball. Maybe the half-space property is sufficient to prove this. I'll try to fix it as soon as possible.
Jan 4, 2019 at 13:31 comment added Dmitri Panov This proof seems to use the following fact from the very beginning: $f$ sends the boundary of each open ball $U$ to the the boundary of the image $f(U)$. Such a property is not assumed in the original question, so it should be proven first, it seems to me.
Jan 4, 2019 at 11:26 history answered Martin Kell CC BY-SA 4.0