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Jan 3, 2019 at 6:22 vote accept vidyarthi
Dec 31, 2018 at 18:35 answer added John Machacek timeline score: 1
Dec 31, 2018 at 6:44 comment added vidyarthi @JohnMachacek Yes, I do have that confusion. But since conformability is a global phenomenon, it should mean any proper vertex coloring. But, since the theorem is related to graphs of Type 1, I think we have to use the proper vetex coloring induced by a total coloring in the proof
Dec 31, 2018 at 5:02 comment added John Machacek Is the question if the inequality holds for any proper vertex coloring? Or for a proper vertex coloring coming from a total coloring?
Dec 30, 2018 at 8:31 comment added vidyarthi @domotorp here is the link
Dec 29, 2018 at 22:25 comment added domotorp Why is this the title of your questions? Some link would be welcome.
Dec 26, 2018 at 6:29 history asked vidyarthi CC BY-SA 4.0