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Jan 23, 2018 at 20:35 answer added Kevin P. Costello timeline score: 5
Oct 17, 2010 at 21:38 comment added JBL By the way, why wasn't that an answer? It has substantive content.
Oct 17, 2010 at 21:35 comment added JBL zhoraster, I agree with your computation for $k = 3$, $n = 6$, but I disagree with your final conclusion: for $n \leq 8$, the probability of winning with singletons is better, but for $n > 8$, pairs win out. (I'm comparing $\frac{(n - 1)(n - 2)}{n^2}$ with $\binom{n}{2}^{-2} \cdot \left(\binom{n - 2}{2} \cdot \left(\binom{n}{2} - 6\right) + (2n - 2)\cdot \binom{n - 2}{2} \right)$ (the summands count the cases that the first two sets have intersection of size 0 vs. 1) and the latter is larger for $n > 8$.)
Oct 17, 2010 at 16:07 comment added zhoraster The conjecture is false for $k=3$. If $n=6$ it's better to choose random singletons (the probability to lose is $4/9$) than random doubletons (the probability to lose is, counting conditionally on the number of elements in the intersection of doubletons of the first two players, $\frac1{15} + \frac8{15}\times \frac{9}{15} + \frac{6}{15}\times \frac{6}{15} = \frac{41}{75}$, unless I messed up). In fact, for $n$ big enough, when $k=3$ it is better to pick random singletons than random doubletons.
Jul 16, 2010 at 1:48 comment added alex @David Speyer - thanks, that's a good suggestion; I'll update the question with some simulation results soon.
Jul 15, 2010 at 23:29 comment added David E Speyer I would suggest running some numerical simulations for $k=3$, choosing uniformly among sets of size $cn$ for various values of $c$. It's worth seeing whether your conjecture is plausible before we think too hard about proving it.
Jul 15, 2010 at 22:30 answer added gowers timeline score: 5
Jul 15, 2010 at 20:24 history edited alex CC BY-SA 2.5
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Jul 15, 2010 at 8:12 history edited Charles Matthews CC BY-SA 2.5
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Jul 15, 2010 at 4:42 comment added Michael Albert @alex Sorry, stupid misreading of the question on my part.
Jul 15, 2010 at 4:25 comment added alex @JBL - I think you're right.
Jul 15, 2010 at 1:57 comment added JBL (In fact, for $n = k$ I think it shouldn't be hard to show that a uniform distribution over singletons is optimal, since any positive probability on a non-singleton is completely wasted, no?)
Jul 15, 2010 at 1:42 comment added alex @Michael Albert: consider $n=4,k=4$, i.e. four people picking subsets of $1,2,3,4$. If everyone picks a random singleton, the probability of winning is positive (should equal $4!/4^4$); but if everyone picks a random two-element subset, I believe (unless I messed up) the probability of winning is zero.
Jul 15, 2010 at 1:19 comment added JBL @Michael Albert, that's not true: if we're picking pairs and we get {1, 2} and {1, 3} and {2, 3}, we lose.
Jul 15, 2010 at 1:17 comment added Michael Albert Regardless of n/k it seems to me that the most likely optimum is where each randomly picks a set of size $\lfloor n/2 \rfloor$. If everyone is always picking sets of the same size, then they lose only when two of them pick the same set, so it makes sense to have as many sets available as possible.
Jul 15, 2010 at 0:47 comment added alex Right: if two people pick the same subset, everybody loses. So this should not be happening too often under the optimal distribution $p$.
Jul 15, 2010 at 0:42 comment added BlueRaja @Jonathan: but that will mean a guaranteed loss
Jul 14, 2010 at 23:49 comment added alex Yes, absolutely.
Jul 14, 2010 at 23:48 history edited alex CC BY-SA 2.5
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Jul 14, 2010 at 23:46 comment added Jonathan Fischoff What I mean, is if one person picks (2,3,4) can another person pick (2,3,4)
Jul 14, 2010 at 23:44 comment added alex I'm not sure what "replaced" means in this context; they are not picking balls out of a common bin. Each person independently picks a subset of $1,2,\ldots,n$.
Jul 14, 2010 at 23:42 history edited alex CC BY-SA 2.5
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Jul 14, 2010 at 23:37 comment added Jonathan Fischoff I'm still trying to grasp the problem. When a combination is selected is it replaced
Jul 14, 2010 at 23:14 history asked alex CC BY-SA 2.5