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Jan 26, 2019 at 6:35 vote accept user521337
Dec 19, 2018 at 13:35 comment added Julian Rosen Using the multinomial theorem, $y_k^p=\sum_{j_i} \frac{p!}{j_0!\cdots j_{q-1}!}x_0^{q_0}\cdots x_{q-1}^{j_{q-1}}\zeta^{k(0j_0+1j_1+\ldots (q-1)j_{q-1})}$. Now if $0j_0+1j_1+\ldots (q-1)j_{q-1}\equiv m\mod p$, then $\zeta^{k(0j_0+1j_1+\ldots (q-1)j_{q-1})}= \zeta^{km}$. So $y_k^p=\sum_m \zeta^{km}\sigma_m$.
Dec 18, 2018 at 3:10 comment added user521337 ok, yeah I got that, thanks ... could you please explain why $y_k^p=\omega_k$ ?
Dec 17, 2018 at 17:04 comment added Julian Rosen Sorry, I should have said this better. The matrix taking $x_0,\ldots,x_{q-1}$ to $y_0,\ldots,y_{q-1}$ is square and Vandermonde, so the span of the $x$'s equals the span of $y_0,\ldots,y_{q-1}$. The extra $y$'s ($y_q,\ldots,y_{p-1}$) are by definition in the span of the $x$'s.
Dec 17, 2018 at 5:57 comment added user521337 Why is $\mathbb C$-span of $\{y_i\}$ the same as the $\mathbb C$-span of $\{x_i\}$ ? the change matrix is not even a square matrix ...
Dec 16, 2018 at 14:25 history answered Julian Rosen CC BY-SA 4.0