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Oct 11, 2015 at 22:01 answer added Marty Isaacs timeline score: 7
Sep 27, 2015 at 10:12 answer added Shahrooz timeline score: 2
Oct 28, 2014 at 1:25 comment added Doug The example of the Heisenberg group doesn't necessarily satisfy all elements having the same order. For example, the Heisenberg group over $C_2$ is $ D_8$.
Jul 15, 2010 at 5:34 vote accept falagar
Jul 14, 2010 at 11:20 answer added Francesco Polizzi timeline score: 3
Jul 14, 2010 at 10:03 answer added Bugs Bunny timeline score: 10
Jul 14, 2010 at 6:25 answer added Victor Protsak timeline score: 18
Jul 14, 2010 at 5:59 comment added falagar Well, I understand now that $n$ must be prime and group might be nonabelian. So there are no straitforward generalizations of case $n=2$. Originally, I was looking for the statement like '... then the group is isomorphic to such or such group'. Now I think there are no such classification and the question is closed.
Jul 14, 2010 at 5:47 comment added Pete L. Clark @falagar: Could you please address what remains of your question in light of my comment above? "Could it be somehow generalized" is not a good question: virtually anything can be somehow generalized. What exactly are you looking for?
Jul 14, 2010 at 5:45 history edited falagar CC BY-SA 2.5
corrected statement
Jul 14, 2010 at 5:35 comment added Pete L. Clark If all elements have the same order, then since the identity has order $1$, the group must be trivial. So surely you mean to exclude the identity. Also, it is easy to see that if all non-identity elements have the same order, that order must be a prime number $p$. If $p>2$, then it is well-known that there are finite groups of exponent $p$ which are not commutative: e.g. the group of upper triangular $3 \times 3$ matrices over $\mathbb{F}_p$ with $1$'s on the main diagonal ("finite Heisenberg group").
Jul 14, 2010 at 5:35 comment added Yemon Choi Can I also ask if you were looking at this question from curiosity, or if it was suggested to you as something to think about?
Jul 14, 2010 at 5:33 comment added Steve D $n$ must be a prime.
Jul 14, 2010 at 5:29 comment added Daniel Barter if n=p and the group is abelian, you can prove that it is a $\mathbb{Z} / p \mathbb{Z}$ vector space
Jul 14, 2010 at 5:24 history asked falagar CC BY-SA 2.5