I have a question about the convexity of an Wasserstein ambiguity set.
Let $W_1(\mu, \nu)$ be the Wasserstein distance of order $1$1 between $\mu$ and $\nu$, defined as $$W_1(\mu, \nu) := \min\limits_{\gamma \in \Gamma(\mu, \nu)} \bigg \{ \int_{\Xi \times \Xi} d(\xi, \zeta) \gamma(d\xi, d\zeta) \bigg \} $$$$W_1(\mu, \nu) := \min\limits_{\gamma \in \Gamma(\mu, \nu)} \bigg \{ \int_{\Xi \times \Xi} d(\xi, \zeta) \gamma(d\xi, d\zeta) \bigg \}, $$ where $\Gamma(\mu, \nu)$ denote adenotes the set of all probability measures on $\Xi \times \Xi$ with marginals $\mu$ and $\nu$.
Let $\nu$ be the empirical distribution. The Wasserstein ambiguity set $\mathcal{M}$ is defined by $$\mathcal{M} := \{ \mu \in \mathcal{P}(\Xi) : W_1(\mu, \nu) \leq \theta \}.$$$$\mathcal{M} := \{ \mu \in \mathcal{P}(\Xi) : W_1(\mu, \nu) \leq \theta \},$$ where $\theta$ is a given radius.
I am curious about whether the set $\mathcal{M}$ is convex. I notice that Wasserstein distance satisfies the triangle inequality, but I'm not sure that the set $\mathcal{M}$ is convex.
Is the Wasserstein ambiguity set of order $1$ is1 always convex?