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Jan 8, 2019 at 8:01 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Dec 5, 2018 at 20:45 comment added YCor If you consider the counting measure on $\mathbf{Z}/k\mathbf{Z}$ and consider its inverse image on $\mathbf{Z}$ (defined on the $\sigma$-algebra $\mathcal{A}$ consisting of subsets invariants by $\pm k$), then you get such a measure, but on $\mathbf{Z}$. After intersecting with $\mathbf{N}$, you get a measure almost as required, except the last axiom. Indeed, writing $T(n)=n+1$, your last axiom is that $A$ measurable implies $T(A)$ measurable and $\mu(T(A))=\mu(A)$. What holds here is that $A$ measurable implies $T^{-1}(A)$ measurable and $\mu(T^{-1}(A))=\mu(A)$.
Dec 5, 2018 at 3:50 answer added user44191 timeline score: 1
Dec 4, 2018 at 0:18 comment added Yemon Choi Are you requiring $\mu({\bf N})=1$, i.e.\ some kind of left-invariant mean?
Dec 3, 2018 at 11:15 review Close votes
Dec 6, 2018 at 20:05
Dec 3, 2018 at 10:10 comment added user44191 There is only one translation-invariant countably additive measure on $\mathbb{N}$, up to scaling: the counting measure. Additionally, why not just take $\mathcal{A}$ as the full $\sigma$-algebra itself?
Dec 3, 2018 at 9:24 answer added Dominic van der Zypen timeline score: 0
Dec 3, 2018 at 9:14 history edited Lisa CC BY-SA 4.0
deleted 8 characters in body
Dec 3, 2018 at 9:10 history edited user44191 CC BY-SA 4.0
Cleared up grammatical issues
Dec 3, 2018 at 9:00 review First posts
Dec 3, 2018 at 9:43
Dec 3, 2018 at 8:59 history asked Lisa CC BY-SA 4.0