Timeline for Is there a coupling that induces a given coupling via a transition kernel?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Dec 7, 2018 at 21:27 | vote | accept | S.Surace | ||
| Nov 27, 2018 at 13:11 | answer | added | Martin Kell | timeline score: 1 | |
| Nov 23, 2018 at 13:31 | comment | added | S.Surace | Do you mean the definitions of $\tilde\mu$ and $\tilde\nu$? $\mu$ and $\nu$ are measures on $X$, and the kernel is used to produce two measures on $Y$. Am I missing something? | |
| Nov 23, 2018 at 13:15 | comment | added | Liviu Nicolaescu | Looks like you have two transition kernels. E transition from kernel from $X$ to $Y$ is a map $\newcommand{\eE}{\mathscr{M}}$ $k: \eE_Y\times X\to[0,\infty]$, where $\eE_Y$ is the $\sigma$-algebra of events in $Y$. The formul{\ae} that you wrote in the 2nd line cannot simultaneously make sense if $X\neq Y$. | |
| Nov 23, 2018 at 10:20 | history | edited | S.Surace | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 16 characters in body
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| Nov 23, 2018 at 10:08 | history | asked | S.Surace | CC BY-SA 4.0 |