$\newcommand\F{\mathbf{F}}$ $\newcommand\Z{\mathbf{Z}}$ $\newcommand\Q{\mathbf{Q}}$ $\newcommand\Gal{\mathrm{Gal}}$ $\newcommand\GL{\mathrm{GL}}$ $\newcommand\SL{\mathrm{SL}}$
Some more examples of groups with corresponding maps $w$:
Let $G = \GL_2(\F_p)$ and $V = \SL_2(\F_p)$, and consider $(\Z/p)^{\times} \subset G$ via the map
$$c \rightarrow \left( \begin{matrix} c & 0 \\ 0 & 1 \end{matrix} \right).$$
Then one can take $w: G \rightarrow \F_p$ to be (say) the $[1,1]$ entry of $G$, because then
$$w \left( \left( \begin{matrix} w & x \\ y & z \end{matrix} \right) \left( \begin{matrix} c & 0 \\ 0 & 1 \end{matrix} \right) \left( \begin{matrix} r & s \\ t & u \end{matrix} \right)\right) = c p w + r x$$
is affine linear in $c$. Hence this gives an admissible $w$. Moreover, for $G$ to occur as a Galois group, we would want a representation:
$$\rho: \Gal(\overline{\Q}/\Q) \rightarrow \GL_2(\F_p)$$
which is unramified outside $p$ with cyclotomic determinant and so that the restriction to inertia was
$$\rho |_{I_p} = \left( \begin{matrix} \varepsilon & 0 \\ 0 & 1 \end{matrix} \right)$$
where $\varepsilon$ is the mod-$p$ cyclotomic character (which gives the canonical identification of $\Gal(\Q_p(\zeta_p)/\Q_p)$ with $(\Z/p)^{\times}$).
Speyer asked in another question whether one could prove that $V_{p-2} = 0$ using anything simpler than Herbrand --- perhaps with the idea that any simple direct negative answer to this question would give a new proof. This example is even worse --- to rule out the existence of such a representation $\rho$, I can't see any simpler argument than using the proof of Serre's conjecture by Khare-Wintenberger (the case $N(\rho) = 1$ and $k(\rho) = 2$). Even worse, if one replaces $\GL_2$ with $\GL_3$ and maps $(\Z/p)^{\times}$ to $G$ via $\mathrm{diag}(c,1,1)$, it becomes an open problem to show that a corresponding extension with Galois group $\GL_3(\F_p)$ and representation $\rho$ does not exist --- although various standard conjectures certainly imply that it does not. This strongly suggests that proving the answer to the original question is "no" will be very hard. So either one should
Try to prove the answer is "conditionally no" by using conjectures in number theory, after more fully understanding the group theoretic condition.
Try to prove the answer is "yes".
earlier: This answer is basically a response to Speyer (although he omitted this part of the argument, so hopefully it is correct). edit: This doesn't seem to work.
Suppose that $G = \Gal(K/\Q)$, where $K$ is unramified over $\Q(\zeta_p)$. Let $V = \Gal(\Q(\zeta_p)/\Q)$. As noted by Speyer, byconsidering the inertia group, we have that that $G$ is a semi-direct product, so $G = (\Z/p \Z)^{\times} \ltimes V$, and elements of $G$ have the form $(c,g):=(c,0)(0,g)$. Since the genus field of $\Q(\zeta_p)$ is trivial, we certainly have $V = [G,G]$. Let us now assume that
$$H = [G,[G,G]] = [G,V] \ne V.$$
Then we can define a function $w: G \rightarrow \Z/p$ on $G$ as follows:
$$\psi(c,g) = \begin{cases} c, & g \in H, \\ 0, & g \notin H. \end{cases}$$
For fixed $x$ and $y$ in $V$,
$$\psi((0,x)(c,0)(0,y^{-1})) = \psi(c,c^{-1} xc y^{-1}) = \psi(c,[c^{-1},x] x y^{-1}).$$
Now $[c^{-1},x] \in [G,V] = H$, and hence
$$\psi((0,x)(c,0)(0,y^{-1})) = \begin{cases} c, & xH = yH, \\ 0, & \text{otherwise}.\end{cases}$$
If I understand correctly, this satisfies the properties of $w$ desired by Speyer.
edit:I guess this doesn't work --- or rather not in an interesting way --- the conditions are never satisfied! They force $G/H$ to be abelian and then $G/H = G/V$.