Skip to main content
9 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Jan 2, 2023 at 2:42 history edited Wlod AA CC BY-SA 4.0
> 4
Jul 14, 2010 at 4:41 answer added Amitesh Datta timeline score: 8
Jul 14, 2010 at 4:01 comment added Amitesh Datta @Gerald Edgar Groups of order $p^2$ for $p$ prime are always abelian and hence your comment can be easily generalized.
Jul 12, 2010 at 16:58 vote accept falagar
Jul 12, 2010 at 16:51 comment added Pete L. Clark This appears to be an exact duplicate of mathoverflow.net/questions/11001/…
Jul 12, 2010 at 14:34 comment added Johannes Hahn The answer is easy with sylows theorems. Use that there are nonabelian groups of order $p^3$ for every prime and look at all prime factorizations with exponents $\leq 2$. For such $n$, the conditions of sylow for normality of all the sylow-groups are necessary and sufficient for all groups of order $n$ being abelian.
Jul 12, 2010 at 14:29 answer added Robin Chapman timeline score: 38
Jul 12, 2010 at 14:14 comment added Gerald Edgar n=4 no nonabelian group. Also n=2 of course.
Jul 12, 2010 at 14:06 history asked falagar CC BY-SA 2.5