Timeline for Bijection between hom sets of equivalent categories?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Aug 18, 2020 at 10:36 | comment | added | Brofessor | They equivalent because there is a bijective correspondence between the two? | |
| Nov 15, 2018 at 12:18 | vote | accept | King Kong | ||
| Nov 11, 2018 at 16:32 | answer | added | Keith Kearnes | timeline score: 5 | |
| Nov 10, 2018 at 21:10 | comment | added | MTyson | What is true is that the categories $\mathrm{Hom}(C,E)$ and $\mathrm{Hom}(D,E)$ (and vice versa) are equivalent. Are there size issues here? | |
| Nov 10, 2018 at 20:11 | comment | added | Keith Kearnes | These claims are not true. You can refute them using 1- or 2-object categories having the property that for any objects $A$ and $B$ there is a unique morphism from $A$ to $B$. | |
| Nov 10, 2018 at 19:37 | history | asked | King Kong | CC BY-SA 4.0 |