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Jun 10, 2019 at 7:35 comment added user141498 relevant: mathoverflow.net/a/330735/141498
Nov 10, 2018 at 20:40 vote accept Hans
Nov 10, 2018 at 20:03 comment added Pierre-Yves Gaillard @KarlSchwede - You may want to take look at my comment below.
Nov 10, 2018 at 19:55 answer added David Lampert timeline score: 9
Nov 10, 2018 at 18:31 comment added Karl Schwede I wonder if Hochster's thesis addresses this? Off the top of my head, I don't know how to make the following Noetherian topological space $\{p,q,r\}$, with open sets $\{ \{p,q,r\}, \{p,q\}, \{p\} \}$, as the spectrum of a Noetherian ring (it's the spectrum of the non-discrete valuation ring associated to $\mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z}$ with the lex order).
Nov 10, 2018 at 18:21 comment added Qfwfq Oh yes, you're totally right, it's the underlying top space of the Spec not the scheme
Nov 10, 2018 at 18:19 comment added Qfwfq $\mathrm{Spec}$ is an (anti-)equivalence from commutative rings to affine scheme, so two rings are isomorphic iff their Spec's are. So, if such a noetherian $B$ exists, your $A$ was already isomorphic to it.
Nov 10, 2018 at 18:17 history edited მამუკა ჯიბლაძე CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 10, 2018 at 18:05 history asked Hans CC BY-SA 4.0