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Nov 1, 2018 at 9:44 comment added Ashot Minasyan The answer should be negative, due to the following fact: for every countable group $H$ there is a f.g. infinite simple group $G$ such that $H \cong Out(G)$ (arxiv.org/abs/0704.0091). So the residual finiteness of Out(G) may be independent of the residual finiteness of $G$.
Oct 29, 2018 at 8:05 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
fixed English
Oct 29, 2018 at 6:04 history asked Michal Ferov CC BY-SA 4.0