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Oct 15, 2018 at 4:20 vote accept Sean Eberhard
Oct 13, 2018 at 17:56 comment added Uri Bader Sean, yes. This is indeed due to connectedness. I posted an answer, for clarity.
Oct 13, 2018 at 17:53 answer added Uri Bader timeline score: 20
Oct 13, 2018 at 16:33 comment added Sean Eberhard @UriBader Why does full dimension imply measure 1? I'm thinking of for example the solution space to $x^2=1$ in $O(2)$. Of course $O(2)$ is not connected, so it's not a counterexample.
Oct 13, 2018 at 16:27 comment added Uri Bader the solution space for a $k$ letters word will be a closed subvariety of $G^k$, and as such it will have either measure 0 or 1. Morover, if $G$ is not commutative then it contains a free group hence this subvariety will be proper, thus of 0 meaure.
Oct 13, 2018 at 16:19 comment added Nate Eldredge Particularly in Lie groups, there's lots of other measure-theoretic and potential-theoretic notions of "smallness" that one could ask about. If it does have measure zero, what's its Hausdorff dimension? Is it a polar set? Et cetera.
Oct 13, 2018 at 16:02 history asked Sean Eberhard CC BY-SA 4.0