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Oct 23, 2018 at 1:21 vote accept ABIM
Oct 16, 2018 at 12:22 comment added Dirk Just noticed something strange: If $g$ in your question is convex and $f$ is real valued, then $g(f(x))\leq M$ just says that $f(x)$ is in some closed interval. Is it that what you mean? If yes, then the infimum is indeed attained pointwise and $f^2(x)$ should be equal to the smallest possible value everywhere.
Oct 16, 2018 at 12:17 comment added Dirk If would be helpful if you could assure that the integrand on the right hand side, i.e. the function $g(x) = \inf_{f\in U} f^2(x)$, is in $U$, in other words, that $U$ is closed under taking infima. If not, I would suspect that the equality is not true in general.
Oct 16, 2018 at 11:52 answer added Martin Kell timeline score: 1
S Oct 13, 2018 at 16:43 history suggested Amir Sagiv CC BY-SA 4.0
relevant subject tag+ abbreviation is little known, so I "expanded" it
Oct 13, 2018 at 16:30 comment added ABIM That's interesting....I'll give that some though, at the moment I'm looking at this book: sites.math.washington.edu/~rtr/papers/… By Rockafellar and Wets. The last chapter may be able to help :)
Oct 13, 2018 at 16:09 review Suggested edits
S Oct 13, 2018 at 16:43
Oct 13, 2018 at 16:01 comment added Nate Eldredge The usual approach would be to try to find a sequence $f_n$ converging a.e. to the infimum, and then try to use something like the dominated convergence theorem on the functions $f_n^2$.
Oct 13, 2018 at 15:28 history asked ABIM CC BY-SA 4.0