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Dec 8, 2018 at 14:05 comment added user57432 @RobertFrost: Not really. See Thomas Bloom's response above.
Dec 8, 2018 at 13:33 comment added Robert Frost I guess we are expecting the full conjecture to be false.
Nov 2, 2018 at 3:19 vote accept CommunityBot
Nov 1, 2018 at 23:03 comment added GH from MO See my response below.
Nov 1, 2018 at 23:01 answer added GH from MO timeline score: 8
Nov 1, 2018 at 16:01 comment added user57432 @GHfromMO: Please let me know if there are any more mistakes in the formulation of the question.
Nov 1, 2018 at 16:00 comment added user57432 @ThomasBloom: Just to be sure. By Montgomery and Vaughan you mean the book Multiplicative Number Theory: I. Classical Theory, right? Also I would be glad if you could comment on the recent version of my post.
Nov 1, 2018 at 15:54 history edited user57432 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 31, 2018 at 16:27 comment added user57432 I have edited the question.
Oct 31, 2018 at 16:27 history edited user57432 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 31, 2018 at 16:26 history undeleted user57432
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Oct 14, 2018 at 8:23 comment added Jan-Christoph Schlage-Puchta "For that y_0" does not make sense, as $y_0$ is a fuction of $\varepsilon$. Also the part about $\varepsilon$ follows from any version of the prime number theorem with error term better than $\frac{x}{\log^2 x}$.
Oct 13, 2018 at 23:40 comment added GH from MO @user170039: It is not clear what is the role of $k$ in the first sentence of your Proposition, since $y_0$ and the first display are independent of $k$. So it seems that the "for all $k>1$" should be the beginning of the second sentence. However, even with that modification, the second statement makes no sense, as it refers to an unspecified $y_0$ (which has nothing to do with $k$). Simply put, the two sentences do not fit.
Oct 13, 2018 at 8:21 history edited Martin Sleziak CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 13, 2018 at 3:27 comment added user57432 Also I don't understand which inequality you were referring. Were you referring to "$y\ge y_0$" or $\pi(ky)+\pi(y)\ge \pi((k+1)y)$? If it is the latter then can you clarify what did you mean by "the last inequality does not contain $\varepsilon"?
Oct 13, 2018 at 3:24 comment added user57432 @Jan-ChristophSchlage-Puchta: Let me try to state the proposition a but more clearly, "Assume that for all $k>1$ and $\varepsilon\in (0,\ln \sqrt{2}]$ there exists $y_0\in \mathbb{R}$ (depending on $\varepsilon$ only) such that for all $y\ge y_0$ we have, $$\dfrac{y}{\ln y-(1-\varepsilon)}<\pi(y)<\dfrac{y}{\ln y-(1+\varepsilon)}$$Then for that $y_0$ and for all $y\ge y_0$ we have, $$\pi(ky)+\pi(y)\ge \pi((k+1)y)$$ where $\pi$ is the Prime Counting Function."
Oct 12, 2018 at 16:57 comment added Jan-Christoph Schlage-Puchta But the last inequality does not contain $\epsilon$.
Oct 12, 2018 at 14:49 comment added user57432 @Jan-ChristophSchlage-Puchta: $y_0$ depends on $\varepsilon$ only and not on $k$. It is the same $y_0$ which was mentioned earlier.
Oct 12, 2018 at 14:09 comment added Jan-Christoph Schlage-Puchta It is not clear what the last occurrence of $y_0$ in the proposition means. If we assume that $y_0$ may depend on $k$, i.e. $\forall k\exists y_0\forall y>y_0: \pi(ky)+\pi(y)\geq\pi((k+1)y)$, then the statement does not contradict the Prime tuple conjecture. In fact, it follows from any version of the prime number theorem with an error term better than $\frac{x}{\log^2 x}$.
Oct 10, 2018 at 13:09 comment added Thomas Bloom I suppose not equivalent, but regardless this 'weaker' form of the Hardy-Littlewood conjecture is still enough to contradict the Prime Tuple conjecture (see e.g. Theorem 7.16 in Montgomery and Vaughan)
Oct 10, 2018 at 13:02 comment added Thomas Bloom As GH says, the claimed Proposition is, thanks to PNT, equivalent to the Hardy-Littlewood conjecture for all large $x,y$. This would contradict the Prime Tuple conjecture, so a) it is certainly not known and b) a proof of it would be very big news.
Oct 10, 2018 at 12:50 comment added user57432 @GHfromMO: Thank you very much for your suggestions. Indeed, as you wrote the first sentence is meant to be a condition (and I am aware that it follows from PNT). I am also aware that this conjecture is believed to be false by Hensley and Richard's paper. Anyway, please let me know of any other problems that you may find in this post.
Oct 10, 2018 at 12:38 history edited user57432 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 10, 2018 at 5:39 history edited GH from MO
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Oct 10, 2018 at 5:37 comment added GH from MO It seems that the first sentence in your Proposition is meant to be a condition, so you should start it with "Assume that". However, this condition follows from the Prime Number Theorem and the asymptotic expansion of $\mathrm{li}(y)$. So it seems that you are claiming the second sentence in your Proposition unconditionally, which as you remark is the second Hardy-Littlewood conjecture. Note also that this conjecture is believed to be false, as it contradicts the Hardy-Littlewood conjecture on prime tuples.
Oct 10, 2018 at 5:27 history edited user57432 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 10, 2018 at 5:21 history edited Martin Sleziak CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 10, 2018 at 5:16 history edited user57432 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 10, 2018 at 4:52 comment added Nate Eldredge $\varepsilon$ doesn't appear in the displayed inequality of Proposition 2, so if I can find a $y_0$ that works at all, it's automatically true for every $\varepsilon$. So as written there's no point in including $\varepsilon$ at all. I assume this is not what you meant, and that there is a typo.
Oct 10, 2018 at 4:50 comment added user57432 @NateEldredge: Sorry, I don't understand. Can you clarify?
Oct 10, 2018 at 4:50 comment added Nate Eldredge Did you mean for the conclusion of Proposition 2 to actually mention $\varepsilon$?
Oct 10, 2018 at 3:48 history asked user57432 CC BY-SA 4.0