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Oct 12, 2018 at 13:33 comment added Nik Weaver Yes, because the images of the $A_n$ are dense in $A$.
Oct 12, 2018 at 12:55 comment added Math Lover @NikWeaver: Thanks I can see that $A_n/I_n$ sits isometrically inside $A/I $ but I don’t see why it’s enough to say that limit is actually $ A/I$? Do we need some denseness argument?
Oct 12, 2018 at 9:35 comment added Nik Weaver The key point is that a $*$-homomorphism of C*-algebra must be isometric if its kernel is ${0}$ (a powerful fact). So, you have a natural map from each $A_n/I_n$ into $A/I$, check that its kernel is ${0}$, etc. It's routine.
Oct 12, 2018 at 7:47 comment added Math Lover @NikWeaver: Can you please add few lines why the limit of the sequence is $A/I$? May be this is obvious but since I am beginner so I don’t follow it. Thanks
Oct 3, 2018 at 12:09 comment added Nik Weaver No problem at all.
Oct 3, 2018 at 12:06 comment added Mateusz Wasilewski I confused the two, I'm sorry. Of course you're right.
Oct 3, 2018 at 11:30 comment added Nik Weaver Do you mean the $\phi_n$ or the $\tilde{\phi}_n$? The $\tilde{\phi}_n$ are injective.
Oct 3, 2018 at 9:03 comment added Mateusz Wasilewski Nik, aren't you assuming that the connecting maps are injective? I think that the conclusion holds anyway, because the union of the images of the $A_n$'s is dense in $A$ (and the same for $I_n$'s and $I$).
Oct 3, 2018 at 3:00 history answered Nik Weaver CC BY-SA 4.0