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Oct 7, 2018 at 20:14 vote accept darko
Oct 2, 2018 at 9:22 answer added Daniel Loughran timeline score: 5
Oct 1, 2018 at 18:01 comment added darko @DanielLoughran: It would certainly suffice if we can conclude that the number of $\mathbb{F}_p$-points is $O(p^{\dim Y})$, so a sensible bound on the log-size of the image would be fine. You don`t think it is of any use that the map $\alpha$ is essentially linear and so its fibers are linear intersections with $X$? By the way, I would be satisfied with resolving this even just for large enough primes $p$.
Oct 1, 2018 at 15:49 comment added Daniel Loughran I'm still not sure what you are after and I think that the submersion condition you are imposing is not as important as you think it is. For example the map $x \to x^2$ on the affine line is a smooth morphism away from the origin, hence a submersion on points over these fields, but is clearly not surjective on $\mathbb{F}_p$-points. The image contains $(p-1)/2$ many points; is this a "good enough" lower bound for you?
Oct 1, 2018 at 15:42 comment added darko @aginensky: I really want to have a rational map $\mathbb{P}(V) \to \mathbb{P}(W)$ coming from a surjective linear map.
Oct 1, 2018 at 15:41 comment added darko @DanielLoughran: Indeed, as an analytic function. I have edited the relevant part in the post. Would smoothness be enough to give an answer to the question? How is smoothness over $\mathbb{F}_p$ related to that over $\mathbb{R}/\mathbb{Q}_p/\mathbb{C}$?
Oct 1, 2018 at 15:35 history edited darko CC BY-SA 4.0
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Oct 1, 2018 at 15:09 comment added meh Usually $A \colon V \to W$ surjective is considered as inducing an immersion , $ \alpha \colon \mathbb{P}(W) \hookrightarrow \mathbb{P}(V)$. Is that a typo or do you want to do it that way.
Oct 1, 2018 at 15:08 comment added Daniel Loughran I think it would be good to clarify more the question. By "local submersion", do you mean on the level of $\mathbb{R}/ \mathbb{Q}_p/\mathbb{C}$-points? The analogue of submersion in algebraic geometry is a smooth morphism, so are you asking that $X \to Y$ is a smooth morphism of schemes? This in itself is a very mild assumption, as by generic smoothness it always holds over some open subset of the base (in char $0$). And when counting $\mathbb{F}_p$-points, one is often happy to remove closed subvarieties as these usually contribute negligibly to the count.
Oct 1, 2018 at 14:32 history asked darko CC BY-SA 4.0