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Oct 21, 2012 at 10:37 comment added Martin Sleziak Almost identical question has been posted also at MSE: Discontinuous linear functional
Jul 9, 2010 at 13:12 comment added Pietro Majer Actually, you immediately have unbounded linear operators on a normed spaces as soon as you have a Hamel basis, and as you know, in general the existence of a Hamel basis on a linear space is ensured by the Zorn lemma. Then, if $(x_i)$ is any Hamel basis and $(y_i)$ is any family of vectors indicized on the same set, there is a unique linear map sending $x_i$ to $y_i$, and it is certainly unbounded if e.g. the $y_i$ are chosen in such a way that $|y_i|/|x_i|$ is unbounded.
Jul 9, 2010 at 12:33 vote accept falagar
Jul 9, 2010 at 10:49 comment added Willie Wong You probably know this already, but $T$ of course cannot be symmetric by the Hellinger-Toeplitz theorem. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hellinger%E2%80%93Toeplitz_theorem
Jul 9, 2010 at 10:27 comment added Matthew Daws My understanding is that you can't do this. But, it would be interesting to know how tight this is logically: are there models of ZF where every linear map $\ell^2\rightarrow\ell^2$ is bounded?
Jul 9, 2010 at 10:15 comment added Yemon Choi Good point, Rasmus. For some reason when I write that I thought there was a distinction, but a quick check in Rudin tells me I was mistaken. (I think I was thinking of closed operators, in which case every closed operator with full domain is necessarily bounded by the Closed Graph Theorem.)
Jul 9, 2010 at 10:00 comment added Rasmus Dear Yemon Choi, I'm confused: What's the difference between the two things you mention?
Jul 9, 2010 at 9:45 answer added Jeff Schenker timeline score: 19
Jul 9, 2010 at 9:36 comment added Yemon Choi By $D(T)$, do you mean the domain of $T$ in the usual sense for unbounded operators; or are you just looking for an everywhere-defined, unbounded linear map from $\ell^2$ to itself?
Jul 9, 2010 at 9:08 history asked falagar CC BY-SA 2.5