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Jul 9, 2010 at 16:50 comment added Noah Stein Is this true for some class of $X$ and $Y$ or just two particular random variables? If it's two particular random variables then the condition certain doesn't imply anything without further knowledge of the distributions: X and Y could just be particular constants, and the inequality would tell you very little about f globally.
Jul 9, 2010 at 6:52 answer added robin girard timeline score: 2
Jul 8, 2010 at 22:23 comment added j.c. I've removed the soft-question tag, as this doesn't really fit the bill.
Jul 8, 2010 at 22:23 history edited j.c.
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Jul 8, 2010 at 21:36 history asked Yiannis CC BY-SA 2.5