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Sep 12, 2018 at 13:31 history edited Philippe Gaucher CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 12, 2018 at 13:29 comment added Philippe Gaucher @DavidWhite Unfortunately, I think that I cannot avoid to understand $L_1$ for which I don't know any explicit form. I just know that $L_1$ exists thanks to the theory of locally presentable categories. I wonder whether there is a characterization of a Quillen equivalence $L\dashv R$ which only uses $L$ or which only uses $R$; I am not aware of such a statement. All characterizations I know use both $L$ and $R$.
Sep 12, 2018 at 1:08 history edited Philippe Gaucher CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 11, 2018 at 16:40 comment added David White I'm just between classes, with no time for a real answer, but an observation: the Quillen adjunction $(L_1,R_1)$ is a Quillen equivalence if and only if, on the level of homotopy categories, it induces an equivalence of categories. The hypothesis in (4) says that those homotopy categories are indeed equivalent (because $(L_2,R_2)$ also induces an equivalence of homotopy categories by (3)), so it's at least plausible.
Sep 11, 2018 at 13:43 history edited Philippe Gaucher CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 11, 2018 at 13:27 history asked Philippe Gaucher CC BY-SA 4.0