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Aug 20, 2023 at 17:48 history edited Keith Millar CC BY-SA 4.0
minor syntax issues
Aug 19, 2023 at 23:52 history edited Keith Millar CC BY-SA 4.0
added 5404 characters in body
Jun 15, 2020 at 7:27 history edited CommunityBot
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Sep 10, 2018 at 15:50 vote accept Tim Campion
Sep 9, 2018 at 9:37 comment added Jiří Rosický Look at www1.maths.leeds.ac.uk/~pmtadb/AccessibleCategories2018/…
Sep 7, 2018 at 19:28 comment added Keith Millar @TimCampion No problem, it's good to formally define things in a compact and straightforwards way.
Sep 7, 2018 at 17:49 comment added Tim Campion @KeithMillar I see, thanks. Sorry to harp on about this, but what I'm driving at is that the sorts in Ebbinghaus' notion of "logic" have nothing whatsoever to do with higher order entities -- in fact, the isomorphism-invariance rule for satisfaction entails that the sorts of the vocabulary may only be first-order sorts, and therefore the functions / relations in the vocabulary are also necessarily first-order, just as in Chang and Keisler's definition, or in classical higher-order logic according to Alex Kruckman in the comments above.
Sep 7, 2018 at 17:30 comment added Keith Millar @TimpCampion by complex I mean that it isn't quite intuitive or layman. However, you are correct that it is much more compact and quicker/more straightforwards. You are also correct that it can't represent all higher-order entities.
Sep 7, 2018 at 17:14 comment added Tim Campion But we can't actually do this, again because of isomorphism-invariance.
Sep 7, 2018 at 17:14 comment added Tim Campion Then for each $x \in X$ and $R \in P$ we need some sort of formula $\epsilon(x,R)$ whose interpretation is that $x \in R$. The first option would be to add $\epsilon$ to the signature. But then by isomorphism-invariance, we are essentially required to use Henkin semantics, which means we're not really doing second-order logic at all. The second option would be to have a rule in our logic which adds a formula $\epsilon(x,R)$ automatically, and stipulates that in the semantics, this formula can only be satisfied if the interpretation $[P]$ of $P$ is the powerset of $[X]$.
Sep 7, 2018 at 17:13 comment added Tim Campion @KeithMillar I don't understand your second sentence -- I just gave Ebbinghaus' complete definition in one comment and it didn't seem particularly complex to me. Regarding your first sentence, the fact that a logic may have many sorts does not imply that its sorts may adequately represent higher-order entities. In fact, I see two ways to try to fit higher-order symbols in Ebbinghaus' framework, both of which seem problematic. Let's say we want to formalize a theory with one first-order sort $X$ and one second-order sort $P$ where $P$ represents the powerset of $X$.
Sep 7, 2018 at 16:34 history edited Keith Millar CC BY-SA 4.0
clarifying that i'm not a reliable source
Sep 7, 2018 at 16:30 comment added Keith Millar @TimCampion This logic already includes higher-order function and relation symbols, as it is many-sorted. But that definition is much more formal and accurate, even though it is a lot more complex.
Sep 7, 2018 at 15:45 comment added Tim Campion The definition of "logic" in Model-Theoretic Logics is in Ebbinghaus' Ch II. It can be summarized as follows. Many-sorted first-order vocabularies form a category $Voc$ under injective well-typed maps. First-order structures form a functor $Str: Voc^{op} \to Cl$ where $Cl$ is the category of classes. A "logic" is a functor $Lang: Voc\to Cl$ equipped with a dinatural transformation $\models:Lang \times Str \to 2$ where $2$ is the constant functor at $\{0,1\}$. Of course, there's still the ambiguity of what a class or class function is.
Sep 7, 2018 at 15:22 comment added Tim Campion I suspect this notion of "logic" is not the "utlimate" notion of "logic" for which a similar theorem holds. For example, Theorem 6.9 here suggests to me that one could get a similar theorem for higher-order logics which allow the vocabulary to include higher-order function / relation symbols.
Sep 7, 2018 at 15:17 comment added Tim Campion @KeithMillar There are a bunch of classes which appear both in Vopenka's principle and in the definition of a logic. In this theorem, are these to be interpreted as definable classes in ZFC, or are we working in NBG or something?
Sep 7, 2018 at 14:17 comment added Alex Kruckman More precisely, the result in question is Part F, Chapter XVIII, Theorem 1.5.17 on p. 661 of Model Theoretic Logics and is attributed to Makowsky.
Sep 7, 2018 at 3:36 history edited Keith Millar CC BY-SA 4.0
defining things
Sep 7, 2018 at 3:12 history edited Keith Millar CC BY-SA 4.0
oof
Sep 7, 2018 at 2:49 history answered Keith Millar CC BY-SA 4.0