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Aug 26, 2018 at 12:14 comment added Max Alekseyev Indeed. E.g., the formula in question directly follows from the one in my answer by setting $v_i=L_i^{\ell}$.
Aug 26, 2018 at 0:39 comment added Gjergji Zaimi @darijgrinberg, yes that was mentioned in a previous question as well: mathoverflow.net/questions/262153/… . I think the second equality is the main part of the question.
Aug 26, 2018 at 0:25 comment added darij grinberg Then, $\gcd\left(L_i, L_j\right)^{\ell} = \gcd\left(L_i^{\ell}, L_j^{\ell}\right)$, so your left hand side is the gcd-determinant for the $n$-tuple $\left(L_1^{\ell}, L_2^{\ell}, \ldots, L_n^{\ell}\right)$, which has a well-known formula (see, e.g., Lemma 7.1 in Chris Godsil, An Introduction to the Moebius Function, arXiv:1803.06664v1).
Aug 26, 2018 at 0:17 comment added T. Amdeberhan Yes to the first. No to the second.
Aug 25, 2018 at 23:29 comment added darij grinberg Do the $L_i$ form a gcd-sequence? That is, do we have $\gcd\left(L_i, L_j\right) = L_{\gcd\left(i,j\right)}$ ? And does your $\mathbb{N}$ contain $0$ ?
Aug 25, 2018 at 23:28 history edited darij grinberg CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 25, 2018 at 23:20 history asked T. Amdeberhan CC BY-SA 4.0