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May 3 at 13:43 history edited LSpice CC BY-SA 4.0
Capitalise title, while this is on the front page
May 3 at 7:55 answer added user165013 timeline score: 2
Jul 8, 2010 at 13:55 vote accept David Marín
Jul 7, 2010 at 22:32 answer added Abdelmalek Abdesselam timeline score: 13
Jul 7, 2010 at 14:23 comment added Robin Chapman If you have access to a computer algebra system, you can do the following. Let $\xi$ denote a solution to $f(1,\xi)=0$ where $f$ is your quartic. Then $f(X,Y+\xi X)=b'X^3Y+\cdots+Y^4$. The elliptic curve is now isomorphic to $y^2=b'x^3+c'x^2+d'x+1$. Transform it to the usual Weierstrass form and take the $j$-invariant. Note that $b'$ etc. will have $\xi$s in them, but they should all cancel out via the equation $f(1,\xi)=0$ in the final result.
Jul 7, 2010 at 14:00 comment added David Marín Yes, that is exactly what I am looking for.
Jul 7, 2010 at 13:54 comment added Robin Chapman Do you mean the j-invariant of the elliptic curve $y^2=ax^4+bx^3+cx^2+dx+1$?
Jul 7, 2010 at 13:51 history asked David Marín CC BY-SA 2.5