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MSMalekan
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By parallelogram rule in "Murray-von Numann equivalency" we have $p-p\wedge(1-e)\sim e-e\wedge(1-p)$. Hence, $p-p\wedge(1-e)$ is always finite, if $e$ is finite.

By parallelogram rule in "Murray-von Numann equivalency" we have $p-p\wedge(1-e)\sim e-e\wedge(1-p)$. Hence, $p-p\wedge(1-e)$ is always finite, if $e$ is.

By parallelogram rule in "Murray-von Numann equivalency" we have $p-p\wedge(1-e)\sim e-e\wedge(1-p)$. Hence, $p-p\wedge(1-e)$ is always finite, if $e$ is finite.

Source Link
MSMalekan
  • 2.1k
  • 1
  • 10
  • 19

By parallelogram rule in "Murray-von Numann equivalency" we have $p-p\wedge(1-e)\sim e-e\wedge(1-p)$. Hence, $p-p\wedge(1-e)$ is always finite, if $e$ is.