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Aug 7, 2018 at 15:28 history edited Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 7, 2018 at 14:35 history edited Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 7, 2018 at 14:25 comment added Geoff Robinson @LSpice : Because I was using the OP's terminology rather than my own.
Aug 7, 2018 at 13:43 history edited Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 7, 2018 at 13:33 comment added LSpice @GeoffRobinson, why the 'sic' on '"percentage"'?
Aug 7, 2018 at 13:18 history edited Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 7, 2018 at 13:17 comment added lydiaP That is also what I was wondering, that if I have higher values in a Matrix A than in a Matrix B but the "symmetry" is the same, then A will have a higher degree of asymmetry even it should be the same value, right? So dividing maybe the range by the largest value of the matrix?
Aug 7, 2018 at 13:17 history edited Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 7, 2018 at 13:07 comment added Geoff Robinson Wouldn't you want some sort of normalization to answer the question? By that I mean that, given a matrix $A$ ( I guess some $n \times n$ real matrix is intended), the "percentage" (sic) of how symmetric $A$ is should remain unchanged if we replace $A$ by a non-zero scalar multiple.
Aug 7, 2018 at 12:39 history answered Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 4.0