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Jul 25, 2018 at 11:10 answer added Gerald Edgar timeline score: 1
Jul 25, 2018 at 3:45 comment added Nik Weaver Do you mean $f = g\circ h$ almost everywhere? I can give a simple counterexample if you demand $f(t) = g(h(t))$ for all $t$.
Jul 25, 2018 at 3:35 review Close votes
Jul 26, 2018 at 17:06
Jul 25, 2018 at 2:00 comment added Banan.SUN I know If f and g are simple functions, the answer is yes.
Jul 25, 2018 at 2:00 history asked Banan.SUN CC BY-SA 4.0