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Apr 13, 2017 at 12:58 history edited CommunityBot
replaced http://mathoverflow.net/ with https://mathoverflow.net/
Jul 8, 2010 at 11:41 vote accept paul Monsky
Jul 8, 2010 at 11:40 vote accept paul Monsky
Jul 8, 2010 at 11:41
S Jul 8, 2010 at 11:40 vote accept paul Monsky
Jul 8, 2010 at 11:40
Jul 8, 2010 at 11:40 vote accept paul Monsky
S Jul 8, 2010 at 11:40
Jul 7, 2010 at 22:16 answer added paul Monsky timeline score: 1
Jul 7, 2010 at 21:20 answer added paul Monsky timeline score: 1
Jul 5, 2010 at 12:43 comment added Wadim Zudilin Paul, as one of the interested viewers I would be glad to learn about your simple argument. (Your comment is like Fermat's "I have discovered a truly marvelous proof that...") Thanks!
Jul 5, 2010 at 6:22 answer added Wadim Zudilin timeline score: 4
Jul 5, 2010 at 2:00 comment added Wadim Zudilin The differential operator $D=\operatorname{id}+x(d/dx)$ "kills" the unwanted odd powers, so that the original problem is equivalent to $D(fg)\equiv D(f)g^2\equiv D(f)g(x^2)\pmod{2}$ where the congruence is applied to all coefficients in the power series expansions. I wonder whether this is helpful, but $f$ and $g$ are related to the thetanulls, $2f=x^{-1/4}\vartheta_2(x)$ and $2g=1+\vartheta_3(x)$ where $x=\exp(\pi i\tau)$, and there exist DEs for the latter ones.
Jul 5, 2010 at 0:27 comment added Will Jagy Hi, Folks. I can certainly believe the Question, for the quotient I get, by hand, exponents 0, 3, 6, 9, 10, 11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 23, 28, 33, 36, 37, 41, 47, 49, 55, 57, 59, 65, 66, 71,... Maybe something will come to me, but meanwhile it appears Paul thought of a solution. Have you seen Greg Kuperberg's take on the original project? mathoverflow.net/questions/26839/…
Jul 4, 2010 at 23:00 history edited Will Jagy CC BY-SA 2.5
field
Jul 4, 2010 at 13:07 comment added paul Monsky I now think I can answer my own question (in the affirmative) with a rather simple argument. But I'll leave things as they are for the time being for the interest of viewers.
Jul 4, 2010 at 12:39 comment added paul Monsky Wadim, You miscalculated--the quotient is 1+x^3-2*x^4+2*x^5-x^6+.... Of course over Z/2 the quotient is 1+x^3+x^6... Paul
Jul 4, 2010 at 11:51 history edited Wadim Zudilin CC BY-SA 2.5
typo corrected; links added
Jul 4, 2010 at 11:40 history edited Wadim Zudilin CC BY-SA 2.5
TeXified
Jul 4, 2010 at 11:39 history edited Robin Chapman CC BY-SA 2.5
TeXed up
Jul 4, 2010 at 11:06 history asked paul Monsky CC BY-SA 2.5