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Jul 13, 2018 at 14:35 vote accept user564401
Jul 13, 2018 at 11:39 answer added Jason Starr timeline score: 6
Jul 12, 2018 at 16:54 comment added Jason Starr I meant to write $\mathbb{P}^2\times \mathbb{P}^1$, not $\mathbb{P}^2\times \mathbb{P}^2$. Sorry about that.
Jul 12, 2018 at 16:16 comment added user564401 @JasonStarr Can you point me toward a reference? Also, it's not clear to me how this would get one closer to an elliptic surface, but maybe I'm just not seeing it. The only way I can think of is to start with an elliptic surface without a section and with multiple fibers, then do a log transformation. But then of course, determining what one ends up with is nontrivial... Curious to see if anyone can point me toward a specific example of this.
Jul 12, 2018 at 0:14 comment added Jason Starr Possibly you can use the infinitesimal approach to Noether-Lefschetz theory to prove that a very general hypersurface in $\mathbb{P}^2\times \mathbb{P}^2$ of bidegree $(3,d)$, $d\gg 0$, has no section (obviously it has no multiple fibers, since that is codimension $>2$ in the parameter space of plane cubic curves).
Jul 11, 2018 at 21:19 comment added user564401 I do need it to be projective. Edited accordingly.
S Jul 11, 2018 at 21:09 history suggested user564401 CC BY-SA 4.0
clarification of the questions
Jul 11, 2018 at 18:54 review Suggested edits
S Jul 11, 2018 at 21:09
Jul 11, 2018 at 17:10 comment added Jason Starr Do you require the surface to be projective? (Maybe that is part of "properly".) If Kaehler, non-projective surfaces are acceptable, then you can take the base change of a non-projective elliptic K3 by a high degree morphism from $\mathbb{P}^1$ to $\mathbb{P}^1$.
Jul 11, 2018 at 16:58 review First posts
Jul 11, 2018 at 17:05
Jul 11, 2018 at 16:56 history asked user564401 CC BY-SA 4.0