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Jul 8, 2018 at 19:42 comment added Ali Taghavi @thedude You are well come and thank you for your attention to my question.
Jul 8, 2018 at 19:37 answer added coudy timeline score: 5
Jul 8, 2018 at 19:19 comment added thedude @AliTaghavi I thought the geodesic flow was defined on the manifold, but now I see it is defined on the tangent bundle. So I learned something from your question. Thank you.
Jul 8, 2018 at 16:33 vote accept Ali Taghavi
Jul 8, 2018 at 15:20 comment added R W @thedude No - please check carefully the definition of ergodicity and the definition of the geodesic flow.
Jul 8, 2018 at 15:11 comment added thedude @AliTaghavi A torus geodesic with irrational slope will come arbitrarily close to any point. Is this not your definition of ergodic?
Jul 8, 2018 at 15:03 comment added Lee Mosher I believe that if $M$ is a closed hyperbolic surface, and if you then alter the metric to be negatively curved except at a single point of zero curvature, the resulting geodesic flow will still be ergodic. I do not have a proof at hand.
Jul 8, 2018 at 14:52 answer added R W timeline score: 13
Jul 8, 2018 at 14:45 comment added R W @Ali Taghavi - Oups - sorry - of course the geodesic flow on the torus is not ergodic - since the slope is preserved
Jul 8, 2018 at 14:29 comment added Ali Taghavi @RW What is the argument for ergodicity? May I ask you to read my previous comment?
Jul 8, 2018 at 14:28 comment added Ali Taghavi @thedude but am I mistaken to think that it is not ergodic because the unit tangent bundle possess two disjoint copy of the torus $T^2$ which separate the unit tangent bundle and is invariant under the geodesic flow?
Jul 8, 2018 at 12:57 history edited Ali Taghavi CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 8, 2018 at 12:29 history asked Ali Taghavi CC BY-SA 4.0