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truebaran
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In the K-theory formulation of the index theorem one defines the topological index in terms of the so called wrong way maps. Those maps are defined for embeddings of compact manifolds $i:X \to Y$: see section 2.2 (page 16) in Landweber - K-theory and elliptic operators article for more details. I would like to understand

why this construction is functorial, i.e. why $(j \circ i)_!=j_! \circ i_!$ where $i:X \to Y$ and $j:Y \to Z$ are embeddings of compact manifolds.

Forgive me if this question is too elementary for this site.

In the K-theory formulation of the index theorem one defines the topological index in terms of the so called wrong way maps. Those maps are defined for embeddings of compact manifolds $i:X \to Y$: see Landweber - K-theory and elliptic operators article for more details. I would like to understand

why this construction is functorial, i.e. why $(j \circ i)_!=j_! \circ i_!$ where $i:X \to Y$ and $j:Y \to Z$ are embeddings of compact manifolds.

Forgive me if this question is too elementary for this site.

In the K-theory formulation of the index theorem one defines the topological index in terms of the so called wrong way maps. Those maps are defined for embeddings of compact manifolds $i:X \to Y$: see section 2.2 (page 16) in Landweber - K-theory and elliptic operators article for more details. I would like to understand

why this construction is functorial, i.e. why $(j \circ i)_!=j_! \circ i_!$ where $i:X \to Y$ and $j:Y \to Z$ are embeddings of compact manifolds.

Forgive me if this question is too elementary for this site.

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LSpice
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In the K-theory formulation of the index theorem one defines the topological index in terms of the so called wrong way maps. Those maps are defined for embeddings of compact manifolds $i:X \to Y$: see thisLandweber - K-theory and elliptic operators article for more details. I would like to understand

why this construction is functorial, i.e. why $(j \circ i)_!=j_! \circ i_!$ where $i:X \to Y$ and $j:Y \to Z$ are embeddings of compact manifolds.

Forgive me if this question is too elementary for this site.

In the K-theory formulation of the index theorem one defines the topological index in terms of the so called wrong way maps. Those maps are defined for embeddings of compact manifolds $i:X \to Y$: see this article for more details. I would like to understand

why this construction is functorial, i.e. why $(j \circ i)_!=j_! \circ i_!$ where $i:X \to Y$ and $j:Y \to Z$ are embeddings of compact manifolds.

Forgive me if this question is too elementary for this site.

In the K-theory formulation of the index theorem one defines the topological index in terms of the so called wrong way maps. Those maps are defined for embeddings of compact manifolds $i:X \to Y$: see Landweber - K-theory and elliptic operators article for more details. I would like to understand

why this construction is functorial, i.e. why $(j \circ i)_!=j_! \circ i_!$ where $i:X \to Y$ and $j:Y \to Z$ are embeddings of compact manifolds.

Forgive me if this question is too elementary for this site.

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truebaran
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Functoriality for wrong way maps

In the K-theory formulation of the index theorem one defines the topological index in terms of the so called wrong way maps. Those maps are defined for embeddings of compact manifolds $i:X \to Y$: see this article for more details. I would like to understand

why this construction is functorial, i.e. why $(j \circ i)_!=j_! \circ i_!$ where $i:X \to Y$ and $j:Y \to Z$ are embeddings of compact manifolds.

Forgive me if this question is too elementary for this site.