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Jun 28, 2018 at 1:45 vote accept Đào Thanh Oai
S Jun 28, 2018 at 1:36 history suggested David G. Stork CC BY-SA 4.0
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S Jun 28, 2018 at 1:36
Jun 27, 2018 at 22:18 history edited GH from MO
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Jun 27, 2018 at 17:12 comment added Đào Thanh Oai My conjecture equivalent to $\pi(x+y) \le \pi(x)+\pi(y)+1$
Jun 27, 2018 at 15:53 comment added Đào Thanh Oai There is a good answer, if we can convert my conjecture with form $\pi(x+y) \le \pi(a)+\pi(b)$ where $a, b=f(x,y)$ after that we can compare with k-tuplet conjecture.
Jun 27, 2018 at 7:45 comment added Đào Thanh Oai @GregMartin I am sorry, May You see answer below and my comment below?
Jun 27, 2018 at 3:54 history edited GH from MO
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Jun 27, 2018 at 3:54 answer added GH from MO timeline score: 13
Jun 27, 2018 at 2:50 comment added Đào Thanh Oai I am sorry, how these are equivalent, may you show me?
Jun 27, 2018 at 2:47 comment added Greg Martin I didn't claim that $\pi(x)=P_x$; I claimed that your inequality is equivalent to my inequality.
Jun 27, 2018 at 2:42 comment added Đào Thanh Oai $\pi(x)$ is not equivalent to $P_x$
Jun 27, 2018 at 2:41 comment added Greg Martin This is equivalent to the well-known conjecture $\pi(x+y) \le \pi(x)+\pi(y)$, which is now widely believed to be false because it contradicts the prime $k$-tuples conjecture.
Jun 27, 2018 at 2:38 history edited Đào Thanh Oai CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 27, 2018 at 2:24 history asked Đào Thanh Oai CC BY-SA 4.0