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Jun 28, 2018 at 19:57 comment added Math604 Let me ask you another question (well its the same question as the original) but now my interest is in what range of $p$. For ultra weak solutions we know they are bounded for $p<\frac{N+1}{N-1}$ and if we assume no boundary singularlarities then its bounded for $p<\frac{N}{N-2}$. Now suppose $u_m$ smooth positive solutions. Without using moving plane near the boundary (or a blow up argument) is the best one can show that the solutions are bounded for $p<\frac{N+1}{N-1}$ ? I just figured you might know the answer to this without doing any thinking. Your help on this is great
Jun 28, 2018 at 14:09 comment added Math604 Regarding extending the range; I am able to do this with a weighted space approach and duality (different than the approach from Quittner / Souplet book); but i run into problems with the advection term. Regarding your comment. So the approach I am using i don't use the first eigenfunction. I am using a positive `first integral of a(x)' and I assume its roughly linear near the boundary. I am still a bit confused about what exact estimates regarding the 1D case we are talking about; so by all means you can type up some details if its easy.
Jun 28, 2018 at 9:36 comment added fedja @Math604 Yeah, you need to work more to extend the range. BTW, I checked my computations and stay by my words: you are in trouble for a constant field on $[0,1]$ and I do not see why you should be any better off in higher dimensions. Do you want me to post the details?
Jun 26, 2018 at 21:32 comment added Math604 Let me ask a related question (since maybe you know the answer off the top of your head). Consider the original setting. Now without using a blow up argument (or say moving plane on a convex domain) i would like to know when we can obtain that $u_m$ is uniformly bounded independently of $m$. Using the weighted stuff (which I cannot generalize to the real setting i care about) it seems one obtains the result for $ 1<p<\frac{N+1}{N-1}$. Using a very slight generalization of your approach (generalize the 3) I think i only get $p<\frac{N}{N-1}$. Is this what you suspect?
Jun 20, 2018 at 3:59 comment added fedja @Math604 I'll check my computation again then (though it looks correct). There may be some chance for large $p$ that you can control some $L^q$-norm with $q\le p-1$ but I do not see of what use such low norms may be and you declared that your $p$ is close to $1$ anyway
Jun 20, 2018 at 3:50 comment added Math604 i was convinced there was some results regarding the case of $a(x)$ divergence free...specially if there as a first integral of $a(x)$. For instance i think there might be some results in (but i can't currently see it) Communications in Mathematical Physics February 2005, Volume 253, Issue 2, pp 451–480 | Cite as Elliptic Eigenvalue Problems with Large Drift and Applications to Nonlinear Propagation Phenomena
Jun 20, 2018 at 3:33 comment added fedja @Math604 It looks like you are out of luck (in the sense that you cannot control even the $L^1$ norm) in 1D with constant vector field already. Have you checked this case before? ($\Omega=[0,1], a(x)=1$)
Jun 20, 2018 at 1:43 comment added Math604 actually i haven't thought on whether i really need this eigenfunction bound...was just a thought that if i had it; then probably everything ok... but it might be okay without it. I can think on it first and if i have questions i can post more here...in either case thanks for all the help
Jun 19, 2018 at 23:52 comment added fedja @Math604 OK, let me think a bit then. If I find some way around this, I'll let you know :-)
Jun 19, 2018 at 22:47 comment added Math604 so this was exactly the type of thing i was looking for... now whether it works in my situation might be a problem. I think unless i can get a $C^{0,1}$ estimate on the first eigenfunction (indepenent of the parameter) this might be a problem. But i can make some other assumptions (maybe) to get around this. So the actually equation i was working with is $ -\Delta u_m(x) + \lambda_m a(x) \cdot \nabla u_m(x) = u_m(x)^p$ where $a$ is smooth and divergence free but where $ \lambda_m \rightarrow \infty$.
Jun 19, 2018 at 21:20 comment added fedja @Math604 You are welcome. Does it work in your setting or you need something even more robust? In the latter case, just post the actual setup.
Jun 19, 2018 at 18:33 vote accept Math604
Jun 19, 2018 at 18:33 comment added Math604 I think i understand the proof. Thank you very much.
Jun 19, 2018 at 16:17 comment added Math604 thanks you very much for the detailed answer... let me attempt to digest it and see if i understand.
Jun 19, 2018 at 12:27 history answered fedja CC BY-SA 4.0